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Date: 13-08-2004, 14:29
I'm a student in the final year of applied economics at the university of Antwerp, Belgium. I'm doing a thesis this year and my subject is: the income and expenses of football clubs: impact of the european transfer system and broadcasting rights.
Now, I read somewhere on the internet that the UEFA ownes all the rights of the CL matches. The teams that play, actually get an certain percentage of the money the uefa got for the rights. My problem now is: I read also that if for example Ajax would play against Barcelona, and Barca wins, they would get more money than when Ajax wins. Although it's the same match. Barcelona has more viewers in their home country than Ajax has. Can anybody confirm this statement? Or give me internetsources where I can find information about this subject? Any other info is welcome as well. Greetings,
Date: 13-08-2004, 15:03
|And what`s the problem? Look:|
Barca has more viewers - more tickets sold, more T-shorts and other stuff - more money got.
In Spain there are most powerful TV companies - Barca get more money for TV-translations
Also in case Barca`s victory some premium (from sponsors, TV companies) will also be more than for Ajax - because Spain is bigger and more powerful (in this viewpoint).
In case club`s victory all it`s sales will arise - see 1.
Date: 13-08-2004, 15:07
My problem is: it's not money they get from sponsors. Wen they win they get more money from the UEFA. For example: the uefa gets one million euros for the television rights. When barcelona wins, they will get 300.000 euro, but if Ajax wins, they would only get 150.000 euro. While the amount of money the uefa got hasn't changed.
Date: 13-08-2004, 15:11
it is true. Spanish television pays more for the tv-rights, so Spanish club receive more money.
In the uefa magazine under this link you can find the money distribution of last year. The 'MarketPool' is the one depending on the country(/association)
For a discussion on the forum see an old topic here
Date: 13-08-2004, 15:13
|but i think every team in champions league take same money for winning, draw and qualifying group stage.. the difference of money cause may be from tickets or merchandising income and tv ratings..|
because all rights of cl is belong to uefa.. and the tv and advertisement income are taken by uefa...after that this many divided teams according to their wins, draws, ratings..
also there was last year statistic about cl teams income...i think you can want help from Bert about this.
Date: 13-08-2004, 15:15
|It changes. But amount of money UEFA give to clubs is still constant. All the rest of money UEFA takes itself...|
I don`t know why Barca will get 300,000 and Ajax 150,000 but I suppose that it`s based on the same power of national TV operators, number of TV watchers (club fans) or something alike.
Date: 13-08-2004, 17:36
|It's true that different clubs get different money. In the last years, clubs from England are the highest earners from UEFA even though they don't win the trophy. Because UEFA wins more money from the TV rights etc from the matches in England than from other countries.|
Date: 13-08-2004, 23:16
|"I read also that if for example Ajax would play against Barcelona, and Barca wins, they would get more money than when Ajax wins. Although it's the same match."|
This is untrue. The result of a game doesn't influence the money that much.
there's a fixed amount of money for a win & a loss, nothing more or less.
Date: 13-08-2004, 23:17
|btw: if you need Trudo De Jonghe's thesis about belgian soccer & restructuring, mail me at jeroen _ coolsaet @ hotmail . com|
Date: 14-08-2004, 04:27
|Barbara, UEFA gives a prize for every win and draw (half of the amount of the win). There's the only difference between Ajax and Barça on the same match concerning UEFA. If you take sponsors and merchandising and TV you have other differences BUT concerning ONLY UEFA, you have only the difference of the prize. In this case aparently a win is worth 150 000 and a draw 75 000 extra.|